Configuration Management and the Cloud Coursera Quiz Answers

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Configuration Management and the Cloud Week 01 Quiz Answers

Practice Quiz: Automation at Scale

Q1. What is IaC (Infrastructure as Code)?

  • Writing a program from the outside in
  • Programs for industrial use
  • Hardware-based programming with FPGAs
  • Using a version control system to deploy and manage node configurations

Q2. What is the principle called when you think of networked machines as interchangeable resources instead of individual machines?

  • “Flexible deployment”
  • The “Borg” principle
  • Treating computers like “cattle instead of pets”;
  • The principle of “group operation”

Q3. What benefits can we gain by using automation to manage our configuration? (Check all that apply)

  • Consistency
  • Simplicity
  • Reliability
  • Scalability

Q4. Puppet is a commonly used configuration management system. Which of the following applications are also used for configuration management?

  • Valgrind
  • Chef
  • Ansible
  • CFEngine

Q5. A network administrator is accustomed to manually configuring the 5 nodes on the network he manages. However, the company he works for is quickly growing, and there are plans to expand the network to 200 nodes. What is the most reasonable course of action for the network administrator?

  • Prepare to manually configure 200 nodes
  • Hire more network techs
  • Ask for a reduction in planned nodes to simplify configuration
  • Prepare scripts or download software for automated configuration;

Practice Quiz: Introduction to Puppet

Q1. A Puppet agent inspects /etc/conf.d, determines the OS to be Gentoo Linux, then activates the Portage package manager. What is the provider in this scenario?

  • /etc/conf.d
  • Portage
  • Gentoo Linux
  • The Puppet agent

Q2. Which of the following examples show proper Puppet syntax?

class AutoConfig {
package { ‘Executable’:
ensure => latest,
}
file { ‘executable.cfg’:
source => ‘puppet:///modules/executable/Autoconfig/executable.cfg’
replace => true,
}
service { ‘executable.exe’:
enable => true,
ensure => running,
}
}

Q3. What is the benefit of grouping resources into classes when using Puppet?;

  • Providers can be specified
  • Configuration management is simplified
  • The title is changeable
  • Packages are not required

Q4. What defines which provider will be used for a particular resource?

  • Puppet assigns providers based on the resource type and data collected from the system.
  • A menu allows you to choose providers on a case-by-case basis.
  • The user is required to define providers in a config file.
  • Puppet uses an internet database to decide which provider to use.

Q5. In Puppet’s file resource type, which attribute overwrites content that already exists?

  • Purge
  • Overwrite
  • Replace
  • Save;

Practice Quiz: The Building Blocks of Configuration Management

Q1. How is a declarative language different from a procedural language?

  • A declarative language defines the goal; a procedural language defines the steps to achieve a goal.
  • Declarative languages are object-based; procedural languages aren’t.
  • Declarative languages aren’t stateless; procedural languages are stateless.
  • A declarative language defines each step required to reach the goal state.
    Correct

Q2. Puppet facts are stored in hashes. If we wanted to use a conditional statement to perform a specific action based on a fact value, what symbol must precede the facts variable for the Puppet DSL to recognize it?

  • @
  • #
  • $
  • &

Q3. What does it mean that Puppet is stateless?

  • Puppet retains information between uses.
  • An action can be performed repeatedly without changing the system after the first run.
  • There is no state being kept between runs of the agent.
  • Actions are taken only when they are necessary to achieve a goal.

Q4. What does the “test and repair” paradigm mean in practice?

  • There is no state being kept between runs of the agent.
  • We should plan to repeatedly fix issues.
  • We need to test before and after implementing a fix.
  • We should only take actions when testing determines they need to be done to reach the requested state

Q5. Where, in Puppet syntax, are the attributes of a resource found?

  • Inside the curly braces after the resource type
  • In brackets after the if statement
  • After ensure =>
  • After the dollar sign ($);

Configuration Management and the Cloud Week 02 Quiz Answers

Practice Quiz: Deploying Puppet Locally

Q1. Puppet evaluates all functions, conditionals, and variables for each individual system, and generates a list of rules for that specific system. What are these individual lists of rules called?

  • Manifests
  • Dictionaries
  • Catalogs
  • Modules

Q2. After we install new modules that were made and shared by others, which folder in the module’s directory will contain the new functions and facts?

  • files
  • manifests
  • lib
  • templates;

Q3. What file extension do manifest files use?

  • .cfg
  • .exe
  • .pp
  • .man

Q4. What is contained in the metadata.json file of a Puppet module?

  • Manifest files
  • Additional data about the module
  • Configuration information
  • Pre-processed data

Q5. What does Puppet syntax dictate we do when referring to another resource attribute?

  • Enter the package title before curly braces
  • Follow the attribute with a semicolon
  • Capitalize the attribute
  • Type the attribute in lowercase

Practice Quiz: Deploying Puppet to Clients

Q1. When defining nodes, how do we identify a specific node that we want to set rules for?

  • By using the machine’s MAC address
  • By specifying the node’s Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
  • User-defined names
  • Using XML tags

Q2. When a Puppet agent evaluates the state of each component in the manifest, it uses gathered facts about the system to decide which rules to apply. What tool can these facts be “plugged into” in order to simplify the management of the content of our Puppet configuration files?

  • Node definitions
  • Certificates
  • Templates
  • Modules

Q3. What is the first thing that happens after a node connects to the Puppet master for the first time?

  • The node identifies an open port.
  • The Puppet-master requests third-party authentication.
  • The node requests a certificate.
  • The user can immediately add modules.

Q4. What does FQDN stand for, and what is it?

  • Feedback Query Download Noise, which is extraneous data in feedback queries
  • Far Quantum Data Node, which is a server node utilizing quantum entanglement
  • Fairly Quantized Directory Network, which is a network consisting of equitable counted folders
  • Fully Qualified Domain Name, which is the full address for a node

Q5. What type of cryptographic security framework does Puppet use to authenticate individual nodes?

  • Single Sign On (SSO)
  • Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
  • Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
  • Token authentication;

Practice Quiz: Updating Deployments

Q1. What is a production environment in Puppet?

  • The software used for software development such as IDEs.
  • The parts of the infrastructure where a service is executed, and served to its users.
  • A cloud service for commercial production.
  • A Virtual Machine reserved for beta software.

Q2. What is the –noop parameter used for?

  • Passing a variable called noop to Puppet
  • Adding conditional rules to manifests
  • Defining what operations not to perform in a manifest
  • Simulating manifest evaluation without taking any actions

Q3. What do rspec tests do?

  • Checks that nodes can connect to the puppet master correctly
  • Check the specification of the current node
  • Check the manifests for specific content
  • Checks that the node is running the correct operating system

Q4. How are canary environments used in testing?

  • To store unused code
  • As a test environment to detect problems before they reach the production environment
  • As a repository for alternative coding methods for a particular problem
  • As a test environment for final software versions

Q5. What are efficient ways to check the syntax of the manifest? (Check all that apply)

  • Run full No Operations simulations
  • Run rspec tests
  • Test manually
  • puppet parser validate;

Configuration Management and the Cloud Week 03 Quiz Answers

Practice Quiz: Automating Cloud Deployments

Q1. In order to detect and correct errors before end users are affected, what technique(s) should we set up?

  • Monitoring and alerting
  • Orchestration
  • Autoscaling
  • Infrastructure as Code

Q2. When accessing a website, your web browser retrieves the IP address of a specific node in order to load the site. What is this node called?

  • Gate node
  • Entry point
  • Access machine
  • Front line;

Q3. What simple load-balancing technique just assigns to each node one request at a time?

  • Random
  • Round Robin
  • Least connections
  • Source IP

Q4. Which cloud automation technique spins up more VMs into instance groups when demand increases, and shuts down VMs when demand decreases?

  • Infrastructure as Code
  • Autoscaling
  • Load Balancing
  • Orchestration

Q5. Which of the following are examples of orchestration tools used to manage cloud resources as code? (Check all that apply)

  • Terraform
  • CloudFormation
  • Azure Resource Manager
  • CloudFlare

Practice Quiz: Cloud Computing

Q1. When we use cloud services provided to the general consumer, such as Google Suite or Gmail, what cloud deployment model are we using?

  • Hybrid cloud
  • Private cloud
  • Public cloud
  • Multi-cloud

Q2. What is a container?

  • A cloud deployment model that is a combination of public and private clouds
  • A synonym for virtual machine
  • A public file server
  • A virtualized environment containing applications and configurations that can run quickly and reliably on any computing environment

Q3. Select the examples of Managed Web Application Platforms. (Check all that apply)

  • Google App Engine.
  • Amazon Elastic Beanstalk
  • Microsoft App Service.
  • Dropbox

Q4. When a company solely owns and manages its own cloud infrastructure, what type of cloud deployment model are they using?

  • Public cloud
  • Hybrid cloud
  • Private cloud
  • Multi-cloud

Q5. Which “direction” are we scaling when we add RAM or CPU resources to individual nodes?

  • Down
  • Horizontal
  • Up
  • Vertical

Practice Quiz: Managing Instances in the Cloud

Q1. What is templating?

  • The process of capturing the entire system configuration to enable us to reproduce virtual machines
  • The process of copying virtual machines
  • The process of creating a new virtual machine instance
  • The process of testing configurations against known-working settings

Q2. Why is it important to consider the region and zone for your cloud service?

  • To follow local laws and regulations
  • To avoid time zone discrepancy
  • To avoid language barriers
  • To ensure bandwidth and reliability for users

Q3. What option is used to determine which OS will run on the VM?

  • Machine type
  • Boot disk
  • Region
  • Template

Q4. When setting up a new series of VMs using a reference image, what are some possible options for upgrading services running on our VM at scale?

  • Manually updating files via the command line
  • Create a new reference image each update
  • Editing parameters and uploading files individually through the web interface
  • Use a configuration management system like Puppet

Q5. When using gcloud to manage VMs, what two parameters tell gcloud that a) we want to manage our VM resources and b) that we want to deal with individual VMs? (Check two)

  • compute
  • init
  • instances
  • Template

Configuration Management and the Cloud Week 04 Quiz Answers

Practice Quiz: Building Software for the Cloud

Q1. What is latency in terms of Cloud storage?

  • The measure of how many reads or writes you can do in one second, no matter how much data you’re accessing.
  • The amount of data that you can read, and write in a given amount of time.
  • The amount of time it takes to complete a read or write operation.
  • The time delay between an input and output.

Q2. Which of the following statements about sticky sessions are true? (Select all that apply.)

  • All requests from the same client always go to the same backend server.
  • Sticky sessions maintain an even load.
  • They should only be used when needed.
  • They can cause problems during migration.

Q3. If you run into limitations such as rate limits or utilization limits, you should contact the Cloud provider and ask for a _;

  • Beta version
  • Quota increase
  • A/B test
  • Blob storage solution

Q4. What is the term referring to everything needed to run a service?

  • Environment
  • Provisions
  • Utilization limits
  • Continuous integration

Q5. What is the term referring to a network of hosts spread in different geographical locations, allowing ISPs to be as close as possible to content?

  • Domain Name Service
  • Continuous Deployment
  • Platform as a Service
  • Content delivery network

Practice Quiz: Monitoring & Alerting

Q1. What is a Service Level Agreement?

  • An agreement between the user and developer.
  • A strict commitment between a provider and a client.
  • An agreement between service providers.
  • A guarantee of service quality.

Q2. What is the most important aspect of an alert?

  • It must be actionable.
  • It must require a human to be notified.
  • It must require immediate action.
  • It must precisely describe the cause of the issue.

Q3. Which part of an HTTP message from a web server is useful for tracking the overall status of the response and can be monitored and logged?

  • A triggered alert
  • The data pushed back to the client
  • Metrics sent from the server
  • The response code in the server’s message

Q4. To set up a new alert, we have to configure the _ that triggers the alert.

  • Condition
  • Metric
  • Incident
  • Service Level Objective (SLO)

Q5. When we collect metrics from inside a system, this is known as __ monitoring.

  • White-box
  • Black-box
  • Network
  • Log;

Practice Quiz: Troubleshooting & Debugging

Q1. Which of the following are valid strategies for recovery after encountering service failure? (Select all that apply.)

  • Switching to a secondary instance.
  • Setting up monitoring and alerts.
  • Restoring from backup.
  • Performing a rollback to a previous version.

Q2. Which of the following concepts provide redundancy? (Select all that apply.)

  • Having a secondary instance of a VM.
  • Having a secondary Cloud vendor.
  • Having automatic backups configured.
  • Performing a rollback.

Q3. If you operate a service that stores any kind of data, what are some critical steps to ensure disaster recovery? (Select all that apply)

  • Implement automated backups;
  • Use redundant systems wherever possible
  • Test backups by restoring
  • Never delete old backups

Q4. What is the correct term for packaged applications that are shipped with all needed libraries and dependencies, and allows the application to run in isolation?

  • Rollback
  • Secondary instance
  • Containers
  • Disk Image

Q5. Using a large variety of containerized applications can get complicated and messy. What are some important tips for solving problems when using containers? (Select all that apply)

  • Use extensive logging in all parts
  • Reduce the number of containers
  • Reuse container configurations
  • Use test instances;

.

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