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All Weeks TCP/IP and Advanced Topics Coursera Quiz Answers

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TCP/IP and Advanced Topics Week 01 Quiz Answers

Practice Assessment – TCP/IP and Advanced Topics

Q1. Which of the following protocols work at IP layer?

  • ICMP
  • ARP
  • IGMP
  • All of the above

Q2. Which of the following packet header length cannot be used in an IPv4 packet header?

  • 20 Bytes
  • 30 Bytes
  • 60 Bytes
  • 64 Bytes

Q3. How many bits used for header checksum in IPv4 packets?

  • 8 bits
  • 16 bits
  • 32 bits
  • None of the above

Q4. What is the dotted notation of an IP address of 10000000 10000111 01000100 00000101 ?

  • 128.135.65.5
  • 128.135.65.5
  • 128.133.68.5
  • 128.135.68.5

Q5. Given a network address 128.100.0.0, what is its network class type?

  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C
  • None of the above

Q6. Which of the following is provided at the IP layer

  • Connectionless
  • Best effort delivery service
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above

Q7. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which will be your closest choice

  • 255.255.255.224
  • 255.255.255.192
  • 255.255.255.240
  • 255.255.255.248

Q8. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21

  • 172.16.48.0
  • 172.16.64.0
  • 172.16.0.0
  • 172.16.36.0

Q9. What is the first valid host on the subnetwork that the node 172.30.190.198/24 belongs to?

  • 172.30.190.0
  • 172.30.190.1
  • 172.30.190.100
  • None of the above

Q10. Based on 1.1.1.0/24, the IP address would be:

  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C
  • Class D

TCP/IP and Advanced Topics

Q1. Which of following is the range of IPv4 addresses spanned by Class C?

  • 1.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
  • 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
  • 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255
  • None of the above

Q2. If a subnet needs to accommodate up to 500 hosts. How many bits for HostID would be sufficient?

  • 8
  • 5
  • 7
  • 9

Q3. Consider a Class B network, where the subnet ID takes 9 bits. What will be the subnet mask?

  • 11111111 11111111 11111110 00000000
  • 11111111 11111111 11111111 10000000
  • 11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000
  • None of the above

Q4. Given a subnet mask 255.255.255.240, how many hosts the subnet can support?

  • 14
  • 30
  • 62
  • None of the above

Q5. A host in an organization has an IP address 150.32.64.34 and a subnet mask 255.255.240.0. What is the address of this subnet?

  • 150.32.64.32
  • 150.32.64.16
  • 150.32.64.24
  • 150.32.64.0

Q6. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask

  • 14
  • 15
  • 30
  • 62

Q7. When calculating usable hosts per subnet, the following formula is used 2^bits – 2. For what reason is two subtracted? (choose two)

  • Unicast
  • Network
  • Broadcast
  • Multicast

Q8. How many hosts can be addressed on 10.0.0.0/16?

  • 16
  • 254
  • 65536
  • 65534

Q9. Which of the following is a valid IP host address given the network ID of 191.254.0.0 while using 11 bits for subnetting?

  • 191.54.1.64
  • 191.254.0.96
  • 191.254.1.29
  • 191.254.0.32

Q10. DISCO Corporation has been assigned the Class B network address 165.87.0.0. DISCO needs to divide the network into eight subnets. What subnet mask should be applied to the network to provide the most hosts per subnet?

  • 255.255.240.0
  • 255.255.224.0
  • 255.255.192.0
  • 255.255.248.0

TCP/IP and Advanced Topics Week 02 Quiz Answers

Practice Assessment – IP Addressing

Q1. Which class of IP addresses does CIDR performs aggregation on?

  • Class D
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C

Q2. Using a CIDR notation, a prefix 205.100.0.0 of length 22 is written as 205.100.0.0/22. What network mask that the /22 notation indicates?

  • 205.255.255.0
  • 255.255.252.0
  • 255.255.22.0
  • None of the above

Q3. Perform CIDR aggregation on the following /24 IP addresses: 128.58.24.0/24, 128.58.25.0/24, 128.58.26.0/24, 128.58.27.0/24. What is the CIDR outcome?

  • 128.58.28.0/22
  • 128.58.24.0/22
  • 128.58.28.0/24
  • None of the above

Q4. Which protocol provides conversion from an IP address to a physical address?

  • ARP
  • ICMP
  • DNS
  • IGRP

Q5. Which protocol is used to assign temporary IP addresses to hosts?

  • ICMP
  • DHCP
  • ARP
  • None of the above

Q6. In order to maximize the usage of limited IP addresses, which of the following protocol is commonly used

  • NAT
  • DHCP
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above

Q7. The internet protocol allows IP fragmentation so that datagrams can be fragmented into pieces small enough to pass over a link with a smaller MTU than the original datagram size

  • True
  • False

Q8. Which of the following statement is correct for IPv6

  • There are 2.7 billion available addresses
  • Does not support multiple multiple IPv6 address per interface
  • Addresses are not hierarchical and are randomly assigned
  • Broadcast in IPv4 have been replaced with multicast in IPv6

Q9. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) allows a diskless workstation to be remotely booted up in a network with TCP port designation for both client and server

  • True
  • False

Q10. In NAT operations, which of the following statements are correct (Select 3)

  • Translation table allows packets to be routed unambiguously
  • Hosts inside private networks generate packets with private IP address and TCP/UDP port numbers
  • Translation table allows packets to be routed ambiguously
  • NAT maps each private IP address and port number into shared global IP address and available port number

Graded Assessment – IP Addressing

Q1. Packet is to be forwarded to a network with MTU of 592 bytes. The packet has an IP header of 20 bytes and a data part of 1484 bytes. Which of following maximum data length per fragment is legitimate?

  • 562
  • 572
  • 592
  • 568

Q2. What information is used as the entry of the lookup table in a Network Address Translation box?

  • All of the above
  • IP address
  • TCP port number
  • UDP port number

Q3. IPv6 allows fragmentation at

  • Source only
  • Intermediate routers only
  • Both source and intermediate routers
  • None of the above

Q4. Which of following fields that IPv6 dropped from IPv4?

  • Header length
  • ID/flags/frag offset
  • Header checksum
  • All of the above

Q5. Which of following techniques can be used for transitioning from IPv4 to IPv6?

  • Network address translation
  • Dynamic host configuration protocol
  • IP tunneling
  • All of the above

Q6. Which fields in IP packet provide for fragmentation of datagrams to allow differing MTUs in the internet

  • Flags
  • Type of service
  • Identification
  • Fragmentation offset

Q7. IPv6 has a much larger space of

  • 28
  • 216
  • 232
  • 2128

Q8. Which of these statements are true of IPv6 representation

  • Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address
  • A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type
  • The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
  • Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory

Q9. Which of the following statement is true for DHCP

  • Used extensively to assign temporary IP addresses to hosts
  • Allows ISP to maximize usage of their limited IP addresses
  • Time threshold to enforce lease time
  • All of the above

Q10. In Network Address Translation (NAT), which of the following statement is true for a packet with an associated private IP address at the routers in the global internet

  • Create an exception and then forward the packet to the destination address in the header
  • Discarded due to the nature of the packet address
  • Redirected to other routers for address confirmation
  • Forwarded to the destination address in the packet header

TCP/IP and Advanced Topics Week 03 Quiz Answers

Practice Assessment – Transmission Control Protocol

Q1. Which of following control is enabled in UDP?

  • Flow control
  • Error control
  • Congestion control
  • None of the above

Q2. Which of following information is not used in UDP de-multiplexing?

  • Destination IP address
  • Source IP address
  • Source port number
  • Destination port number

Q3. TCP adopts selective repeat ARQ protocol for flow control. In TCP flow control implementation, the window slides at

  • Per-packet basis
  • Per-byte basis
  • Per-bit basis
  • None of the above

Q4. Which flag bit in TCP header must be set when a TCP client initiates a three-way handshake?

  • SYN
  • ACK
  • RST
  • None of the above

Q5. Which flag bit in TCP header must be set when a TCP entity wants to terminate a connection?

  • SYN
  • ACK
  • FIN
  • RST

Q6. In Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), When a segment carries a combination of data and control information, it uses a

  • Source Number
  • Port Number
  • Sequence Number
  • Slot Number

Q7. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), has same Checksum controlling like

  • UDP
  • TCP/IP
  • ICMP
  • IP

Q8. In TCP connection management, which of the following statements are true

  • Select initial sequence numbers (ISN) to protect against segments from prior connections
  • High bandwidth connection pose a problem
  • Use global clock to select ISN sequence number
  • Time for clock to go through a full cycle should be less than the maximum lifetime of a segment

Q9. In phases of congestion behavior, when arrival rate is greater than outgoing line bandwidth

  • Congestion collapse
  • Light traffic
  • Knee
  • Congestion onset

Q10. Which of the following services are provided by UDP

  • IP
  • De-multiplexing
  • Error Checking
  • All of the above

Graded Assessment – Transmission Control Protocol

Q1. When a TCP client initiates a three-way handshake with a sequence number x, what will be the acknowledgement number when the TCP server replies?

  • x
  • x + 1
  • x + y (where y is the sequence number proposed by TCP server)
  • None of the above

Q2. TCP header has a field called window size. What value is the value window size set to?

  • Advertised window size for congestion control
  • Round-trip delay
  • Advertised window size for flow control
  • None of the above

Q3. In general, there are three phases of congestion behavior, i.e., light traffic, knee, congestion collapse. Which phase does TCP congestion avoidance maps to?

  • Light traffic
  • Knee
  • Congestion collapse
  • None of the above

Q4. When three duplicate acknowledgements arrive before timeout expires, what will TCP congestion control algorithm reset congestion threshold to for fast re-transmission and fast recovery?

  • Reset congestion threshold to 1
  • Reset congestion threshold to half of the current congestion window size
  • Reset congestion threshold to the current congestion window size
  • None of the above

Q5. Assume a TCP source writes a 1200-byte message in one write. Which of following is possible for the destination to receive the message?

  • It receives two reads of 600 bytes each
  • All of the above
  • It receives three reads of 400 bytes each
  • It receives a 1200-byte message in one read

Q6. The process of combining multiple outgoing protocol streams at the Transport and Network layers in TCP/IP is called Multiplexing

  • True
  • False

Q7. TIMELY provides a framework for rate control that depends on transport layer protocol for reliability

  • True
  • False

Q8. The operation of TCP congestion control can be divided into three phases, which phase requires that the congestion window size be increased by one segment upon receiving an ACK from receiver

  • Congestion avoidance
  • Slow start
  • Congestion
  • None of the above

Q9. In a router, the control of the transmission rate at the sender’s side such that the router’s buffer will not be over-filled is called _________ if sender is transmitting too fast

  • Network under-utilization
  • Host flooding
  • Network congestion
  • None of the above

Q10. Congestion control is associated with the window size field

  • True
  • False

TCP/IP and Advanced Topics Week 04 Quiz Answers

Practice Assessment – Advanced Topics

Q1. Which of following protocol allows a host to signal its multicast group membership to its attached routers?

  • ICMP
  • IGMP
  • OPSF
  • None of the above

Q2. Which of following statements most accurately describes the reverse-path broadcasting?

  • It assumes that the shortest path from the source to a given router should be the same as the shortest path from the router to the source
  • Each link in the network to be symmetric
  • Each packet is forwarded by a router exactly once
  • All of the above

Q3. Which class of IP address does the reverse-path broadcasting uses?

  • Class B
  • Class D
  • Class C
  • Class A

Q4. Attackers attempt to gain unauthorized access to server. What type of network security threat it imposes?

  • Client imposter
  • Server imposter
  • Man-in-Middle
  • None of the above

Q5. In mobile IP, when a home agent wants to send a packet to a mobile host in a foreign network, each IP packet at the home agent will be encapsulated with an outer IP header. What is the destination IP address in the outer IP header?

  • Care-of address
  • Mobile host’s address
  • Home agent’s address
  • None of the above

Q6. An IP address associated with a mobile node while visiting a foreign link

  • Home link
  • Home address
  • Care of address
  • Handover address

Q7. TCP SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake

  • True
  • False

Q8. In multicast communication, relationship is

  • one to one
  • many to one
  • one to many
  • one to all

Graded Assessment – Advanced Topics

Q1. What is the security requirement in case of Denial of Service?

  • Privacy
  • Availability
  • Integrity
  • None of the above

Q2. In a software defined network (SDN), which of the architectural layer is responsible for switch configuration and forwarding instruction?

  • Middle layer
  • Infrastructure layer
  • Security layer
  • None of the above

Q3. What is the security requirement in case of Malicious Code?

  • Privacy
  • Availability
  • Integrity
  • All of the above

Q4. Which of the following is not a general misconception of SDN?

  • SDN is a mechanism
  • SDN is an open API for that provides standard interface for programming switches
  • SDN is a framework to solve a set of problems
  • All of the above

Q5. Which component of NFV comprises of hardware and software required to deploy, manage and execute VNFs.

  • Network function
  • Network function modules
  • NFVI
  • None of the above

Q6. In Reverse-Path Broadcasting (RPB) scenario, assume each router knows current shortest path to source node. Which of the following statement denotes the router’s action

  • If shortest path to source is through different port, router drops the packet
  • Upon receipt of a multicast packet, router records the packet’s destination address and the forwarding port
  • If shortest path to source is through the same port, router forwards the packet to all other ports
  • The router stores the packet in a buffer and wait for an explicit routing request from the source

Q7. A peer with which a mobile node is communicating is called

  • Home agent
  • Mobile node
  • Correspondent node
  • Foreign agent

Q8. Reverse Path Multicasting (RPM) is used to increase

  • Efficiency
  • Performance
  • Accuracy
  • Strength

Q9. In Reverse Path Forwarding, router receives a packet and extracts the

  • Source address
  • Protocol address
  • IP address
  • Standard address

Q10. A network can receive a multicast packet from a particular source only through a

  • designated parent resolve
  • designated parent router
  • designated protocol router
  • None of the above

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