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Understanding Prostate Cancer Coursera Quiz Answers
Biology, Incidence, and Risk Factors for Prostate Cancer Quiz Answers
Q1. What are the risk factors for prostate cancer?
- + Family history, African American Race, Age
- Smoking
- + Family history, Asian Race, Age
- Alcohol abuse
Q2. Who should discuss prostate cancer screening with their health care provider?
- A 38 year old man
- A 80 year old man with a life expectancy of 5 years
- A 60 year old African American man
- All of these options
Q3. PSA is the abbreviation for:;
- Prostate Sensitive Antigen
- Prostate Specific Antigen
- Prostate cancer
- Benign Prostate Hyperplasia
Q4. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
- Is an infection of the prostate
- Is a benign enlargement of the prostate that occurs with age in some men
- Is a form of lethal prostate cancer
- Puts a man at higher risk of developing prostate cancer
Q5. The Prostate
- Is found in the neck
- Is a gland about the size of the walnut that sits below the bladder
- Is found in the brain
- Is found in women
Q6. Prostate Cancer
- Is the most common non-skin cancer discovered in men
- Is a form of sarcoma
- Is the most common cancer found in women
- Is usually found in children
Q7. What is cancer?
- Is a benign enlargement of a gland that occurs with age
- It is a disease that never kills a person
- It means uncontrolled growth
- Is an infection that is treated with antibiotics
Q8. Cancer is a disease of multiple genetic alterations
- False
- True
Q9. Most of the time, a single mutation is not sufficient to cause cancer
- True
- False
Q10. Prostate Cancer is considered to be what type of cancer?
- A lymphoma
- A leukemia
- A pediatric sarcoma
- An adenocarcinaoma
Q11. A normal PSA is over 100 ng/mL:
- False
- True
How Prostate Cancer is Found, Diagnosed, and Staged Quiz Answers
Q1. A bone scan:
- Detects prostate cancer that has spread to the brain
- Finds prostate cancer cells circulating in the blood
- Can help detect if bone is being damaged by prostate cancer
- Identifies cancer that has spread to lymph nodes
Q2. A CT Scan:
- Can help identify cancer that has spread to lymph nodes
- Uses sound waves to create an image of the body
- Is a blood chemistry test
- Is never used to find prostate cancer that has spread outside of the prostate
Q3. Gleason Grade 3:
- Consists of small glands that are fusing together
- Consists of sheets of cancer cells without gland architecture
- Is also termed PIN
- Consists of small, non-fused glands
Q4. M1 disease:
- Means that cancer has spread to the lymph nodes
- Refers to tumor size
- Is not used in prostate cancer staging
- Means that cancer has not spread beyond the prostate
Q5. Stage T2:
- Refers to prostate cancer that has invaded the rectum
- Refers to prostate cancer that is confined to the gland
- Refers to prostate cancer that has invaded the seminal vesicles
- Refers to prostate cancer that has invaded the bladder
Q6. N1 disease:
- Refers to prostate cancer that has spread to the lymph nodes
- Refers to tumor size
- Refers to prostate cancer that has spread to the bones
- Refers to prostate cancer that is organ confined
Q7. Stage T3b:
- Refers to prostate cancer that has spread to the bones
- Refers to prostate cancer that has spread outside and is invading the seminal vesicles
- Refers to prostate cancer that has spread to the lymph nodes
- Refers to prostate cancer that is organ confined
Q8. An Ultrasound test:
- Uses radiation to determine the location of prostate cancer
- Can help determine the size of the prostate
- Is used to find prostate cancer that has spread to the bones
- Is never used to help diagnose prostate cancer
Q9. A normal prostate:
- Is found in women
- Has large glands and each gland has two cell layers
- Has no glands
- Has small glands and each gland has one cell layer
Q10. A MRI
- Can help determine if prostate cancer has broken through the capsule of the prostate
- Is used to find prostate cancer that has spread to the bones
- Is never used to help diagnose prostate cancer
- Uses radiation to determine the location of prostate cancer;
How Localized Prostate Cancer is Treated Quiz Answers
Q1. Potential side effects of radical prostatectomy surgery include (choose the best answer):
- Incontinence and Erectile dysfunction
- Erectile dysfunction
- Hot flashes
- Incontinence
Q2. Potential side effects of hormonal therapy include (choose the best answer):
- All of these options
- Hot flashes
- Loss of libido
- Loss of muscle mass
Q3. Intermediate risk prostate cancer includes men with Gleason 8-10 disease.
- False
- True
Q4. A man with primary Gleason pattern 5 is defined as having intermediate risk prostate cancer.
- False
- True
Q5. Active surveillance may be an appropriate therapy for:
- Prostate cancer that has spread to the lymph nodes
- Very high risk prostate cancer
- Very low risk prostate cancer
- High risk prostate cancer;
Q6. Radical prostatectomy can be curative for prostate cancer in men with:
- Metastatic prostate cancer to the liver
- Metastatic prostate cancer to the bone
- Intermediate grade prostate cancer confined to the prostate
- Metastatic prostate cancer to the lymph nodes
Q7. External beam radiation therapy can be curative for prostate cancer in men with:
- Intermediate grade prostate cancer confined to the prostate
- Metastatic prostate cancer to the bone
- Metastatic prostate cancer to the liver
- Metastatic prostate cancer to the lymph nodes
Q8. Low risk prostate cancer includes men with Gleason 7 disease.
- True
- FalseQ
Q9. Radical prostatectomy and external beam radiation therapy are generally considered to be equally curative for localized and intermediate risk disease.
- True
- False
Q10. External beam radiation therapy + 2-3 years of hormonal therapy is the therapy of choice for locally advanced disease
- False
- True;
Treatment of Metastatic Prostate Cancer Quiz Answers
Q1. What does castration therapy do?
- Lowers circulating testosterone
- Permanently increase circulating testosterone
- Causes men to grow taller
- Permanently increases circulating estrogen
Q2. LHRH analog drugs work by:
- Decreasing testosterone synthesis by nerve cells in the brain
- Block testosterone binding to the androgen receptor
- Decreasing growth hormone synthesis by the testis
- Decreasing testosterone synthesis in the testis
Q3. What does abiraterone therapy do?
- Blocks synthesis of testosterone
- Causes men to grow taller
- Blocks testosterone from binding to the androgen receptor
- Increases the level of circulating testosterone
Q4. What does enzalutamide therapy do?
- Decreases growth hormone synthesis by the testis
- Blocks synthesis of testosterone
- Decreasing testosterone synthesis by nerve cells in the brain
- Block testosterone binding to the androgen receptor
Q5. What does docetaxel therapy do?
- Acts as a systemic radionuclide
- Increases the level of circulating testosterone
- Blocks testosterone from binding to the androgen receptor
- Attacks dividing cancer cells by blocking cell division;
Q6. What does radium-223 therapy do?
- Blocks synthesis of testosterone
- Acts as a vaccine therapy for prostate cancer
- Acts as a systemic radionuclide to deliver radiation where bone is being remodeled
- Attacks dividing cancer cells by blocking cell division
Q7. The two supra-castration agents currently approved for castrate resistant prostate cancer are:
- Abiraterone and Enzalutamide
- Docetaxel and Enzalutamide
- Docetaxel and Sipuleucel – T
- Radium-223 and Abiraterone
Q8. The first line chemotherapy for metastatic castrate prostate cancer is:
- Bicalutamide
- Abiraterone
- Docetaxel
- Sipuleucel – T
Q9. A phase III clinical trial:
- Compares the new drug to the standard of care
- Is done to find out how toxic the new therapy is
- Determines if the new therapy has any activity against a cancer
- Tests a new therapy in monkeys
Q10. A phase I clinical trial:
- Compares the new drug to the standard of care
- Finds the maximally tolerated dose of a new agent
- Determines how efficacious the agent is against a cancer
- Tests the new agent in mice;
Other Treatments to Support the Health of Prostate Cancer Patients Quiz Answers
Q1. Potential side effects of castration therapy include:
- All of these options
- Weight gain
- Loss of libido
- Hot flashes
Q2. Depression is an often overlooked side-effect of castration therapy:
- True
- False
Q3. A DEXA scan:
- Measures PSA
- Measures testosterone levels in the blood
- Measures bone mineral density
- Is a very painful test involving needles inserted into the body
Q4. Two drugs approved for slowing osteoporosis in men on androgen deprivation therapy are:
- Vitamin C and Vitamin E
- Difungomuctane and gasoline
- Zoledronic acid and denosumab
- Aspirin and acetaminophen
Q5. Alprostadil:
- Causes blood vessels in the penis to constrict
- Can be used to treat erectile dysfunction (ED)
- Is only available as an injection
- Is only available as a rectal;
Q6. Erectile dysfunction can be treated with:
- Vacuum constriction device
- Alprostadil
- Penile implant
- All of these options
Q7. The most common place that prostate cancer spreads to at the end of life is:
- Brain
- Bones
- Heart
- Stomach
Q8. Bone pain can be treated with:
- acetominophen
- Opiates
- NSAIDs
- All of these options
Q9. Breast tenderness is a common side effect of androgen deprivation therapy:
- True
- False
Q10. Loss of muscle mass is a common side effect of androgen deprivation therapy:
- False
- True;
Review:
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