Introduction to Networking and Storage Quiz Answers

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Introduction to Networking and Storage Quiz Answers

Week 1 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Practice Quiz

Q1. Which network topology is best for large area coverage?

  • Mesh
  • Bus
  • Ring
  • Tree

Q2. Which of the following connection types is the fastest?

  • Cable
  • Fiber
  • ISDN
  • DSL.

Q3. What kind of wireless network uses cellular?

  • WMAN
  • WPAN
  • WLAN
  • WWAN

Q4. Who assigns Media Access Control (or MAC) addresses to network devices? (Select two)

  • Network administrators
  • Device manufacturers.
  • Internet service providers (ISPs)
  • Network users

Q5. Which layer of the seven-layer OSI model is responsible for managing the delivery and error checking of data packets?

  • Transport layer
  • Network layer
  • Physical layer
  • Application layer

Q6. What joins two separate computer networks so they can communicate with each other and work as a single network?

  • Gateway
  • Switch
  • Bridge.
  • Repeater;

Quiz 2: Graded Quiz

Q1. What network type is typically limited to a single building or site?

  • Personal Area Network (PAN)
  • Local Area Network (LAN)
  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
  • Wide Area Network (WAN)

Q2. Why would you use a VPN?

  • To encrypt data on a public network.
  • To translate network addresses into subnets.
  • To allocate IP addresses to network hosts.
  • To share an Internet connection to multiple devices.

Q3. Which of the following are valid reasons to choose fiber optic connections for your wired network? (Select two)

  • It is relatively inexpensive.
  • It transmits data using existing phone lines.
  • It is available in most places.
  • It can offer very fast speeds.
  • It can cover long distances.

Q4. What is the slowest connection type of the following?

  • Cellular
  • ISDN
  • Cable
  • DSL

Q5. What kind of wireless networks use Wi-Fi and Wi-Fi 6?

  • WLAN
  • WPAN
  • WWAN
  • WMAN

Q6. What kind of wireless networks use WIMAX?

  • WMAN
  • WLAN
  • WWAN
  • WPAN

Q7. What kind of data transmission flow does a keyboard use?

  • Packets
  • Full-Duplex
  • Half-Duplex
  • Simplex

Q8. How is a dynamic IP address different from a static IP address?

  • Dynamic IP addresses are manually assigned.
  • Dynamic IP addresses are automatically assigned.
  • Dynamic IP addresses are reserved for localhost use only.
  • Dynamic IP addresses are used to secure an internal network.

Q9. What is a de-facto standard?

  • A networking standard that results from marketplace domination or practice.
  • A networking standard developed by an official industry or government body.
  • A networking cable that connects modems to the Internet.
  • A networking standard that determines how other standards are made.

Q10. What is the difference between a repeater and a wireless access point (or WAP)?

  • A WAP provides multiple connection ports, a repeater provides the same ports but also keeps track of MAC addresses.
  • A WAP connects modems to routers, a repeater duplicates modem signals.
  • A WAP extends wireless signals, a repeater acts as a central wireless connection point.
  • A repeater extends wireless signals, a WAP acts as a central wireless connection point.;

Week 2 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Practice Quiz

Q1. Which of the following cable types are used for transmitting video signals? (Select three)

  • IDE
  • DVI
  • HDMI
  • VGA

Q2. What does physical network setup include?

  • Connecting the router to the modem and connecting computers to the router.
  • Finding the gateway address with ipconfig
  • Configuring user accounts
  • Running updates

Q3. Which of the following is an example of a wireless municipal area network or WMAN?;

  • WiMAX
  • LTE
  • Bluetooth
  • LoRaWAN

Q4. Where is a router’s public IP address listed?

  • Under default gateway
  • Under link-local IPv6 address.
  • Under subnet mask
  • Under Ipv4 address

Q5. What does radio firmware do?

  • Tells a device which cell towers to use when roaming
  • Configures a device for a network
  • Manages connections for cellular, wifi, GPS, Bluetooth, and NFC
  • Protects a mobile device from bumps and;

Quiz 2: Graded Quiz Answers

Q1. What does a SATA cable do?

  • A SATA cable connects a motherboard to a hard drive.
  • A SATA cable connects network devices to routers or switches.
  • A SATA cable connects peripherals such as mice, keyboards, and printers to computers.
  • A SATA cable transmits video signals to a monitor.

Q2. What would you use a shielded twisted pair cable for?

  • To connect a computer to a switch or router.
  • To provide power to a printer or scanner.
  • To provide power for a hard drive.
  • To connect a computer to a video display unit, such as a monitor or a TV.

Q3. What does SOHO network security depend on?

  • Firewall
  • STP Ethernet;
  • Router settings
  • DHCP servers

Q4. Where do you go to configure Windows user accounts?

  • In Control Panel.
  • On a DHCP server.
  • In Windows Firewall settings.
  • In Device Manager.

Q5. What does a WANET do?

  • Uses wifi from an ISP connected device to create a wireless LAN.
  • Uses wifi from existing infrastructure to create a wireless mobile LAN.
  • Uses nearby wireless signals to create a small network of a few meters.
  • Uses long range radio techniques to create long-distance network access.

Q6. What wireless network type uses IEEE 802.15?

  • WPAN
  • WMAN
  • WLAN
  • WWAN;

Q7. What is the strongest wireless encryption security mode?

  • POP3
  • WPA2
  • WPA
  • WEP

Q8. Which of the following is the name assigned to a wireless network?

  • A static IP.
  • A PAN.
  • An RFID.
  • An SSID.

Q9. What does synchronization do?

  • Lets you transition from one device to another without losing any newly added information.
  • Lets you connect securely over public wifi.
  • Lets you toggle wifi on and off.
  • Lets you use apps like a remote control.

Q10. What are IMEI and IMSI used for?

  • They are identifiers that help troubleshoot mobile network devices and mobile user account issues.
  • They are monitoring devices that help quarantine malware.
  • They are protocols that direct network traffic.
  • They are older network cable types used in long range connections.;

Week 3 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Practice Quiz

Q1. What is the difference between RAID 0 and RAID 1?

  • There is no difference.
  • Both save parity bits across multiple drives, but RAID 1 can withstand 2 disk failures while RAID 0 can only withstand 1 disk failure.
  • RAID 0 spreads data across drives, RAID 1 mirrors data to a second drive
  • RAID 0 mirrors data to a second drive, RAID 1 spreads data across drives.

Q2. Which of the following statements best describes Active Directory Domain Services?

  • Active Directory Domain Services provide file and print sharing services for Microsoft networks.
  • Active Directory Domain Services provide centralized management of network components such as local area networks and network shares on Microsoft networks.
  • Active Directory Domain Services provide automated management of local network services and local users, groups, and computers.;
  • Active Directory Domain Services provide encryption, user authentication, centralized data storage, and management of communication and search.

Q3. What is RAM?

  • RAM is a built-in motherboard storage chip that fetches data at low speeds, and stores data that will be stored for a long time. The data in RAM memory is retained even when the computer is turned off.
  • RAM is a local storage drive with spinning disk and large capacity.
  • RAM is a storage chip that fetches data at high speeds, and stores data that will only be stored for a short time. The data in RAM memory is not retained when the computer is turned off.
  • RAM is a local storage drive with no moving parts.

Q4. Which of the following are characteristics of a Storage Area Network, or SAN? (Select two)

  • A SAN is a local file server that acts as a hard drive for all devices on a local network.
  • A SAN is attached to a single site.
  • A SAN combines servers, storage systems, switches, software, and services to provide secure, robust data transfers.
  • A SAN includes simple, centralized management of connections and settings.

Q5. Which of the following options is one of the modes of a volume gateway?

  • iSCSI
  • Glacier
  • S3
  • Cachedi;

Quiz 2: Graded Quiz

Q1. Which RAID configuration provides fast and large-scale storage, but without any fault tolerance?

  • RAID 0
  • RAID 1
  • RAID 10
  • RAID 5

Q2. Which of the following statements is true in relation to Solid-state Hybrid Drives (SSHDs)? (Select two)

  • SSHDs decide what to store in solid-state versus hard-disk, based on user activity.
  • SSHDs use a laser to reflect light off a disk’s surface so it can read the reflected light.
  • SSHDs are best for reading large media files stored on disks.
  • SSHDs are faster than hard disk drives.

Q3. What is Direct Attached Storage (DAS)?

  • A unit that contains an array of drives configured in different ways to prevent data loss.
  • One or more storage drives inside an enclosure, directly attached to the computer accessing it.
  • A local file server that acts as a hard drive for all devices on a local network.
  • A combination of servers, storage systems, switches, software, and services to provide secure, robust data transfers.

Q4. What is a repository?

  • A Microsoft technology that manages domain elements such as users and computers.
  • A network location that allows users to store and collaborate on code.
  • A Microsoft Networks service that allows computers on the network to access shared files and printers.
  • A holding area for data center file deletions.

Q5. Which of the following is an example of Storage as a Service?

  • Office 365
  • Amazon Music
  • Gmail
  • Box;

Q6. What is a Storage Area Network (SAN)?

  • A local network’s onsite array of physical drives that combine multiple SSDs and HDDs.
  • One or more storage drives inside an enclosure, directly attached to the computer accessing it.
  • A local file server that acts as a hard drive for all devices on a local network.
  • Offsite network of storage-related hardware, software, and services.

Q7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Storage Area Network (SAN)?

  • Appear as a network-attached drive
  • No fault tolerance
  • Attached to a single local site
  • Easily scalable

Q8. Which of the following is a characteristic of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

  • Easy to manage
  • Appears as a local drive
  • Uses fiber
  • Is fault tolerant

Q9. Which of the following is a protocol used by a Tape Gateway? (Select two)

  • Glacier
  • iSCSI
  • NFS
  • S3

Q10. Which of the following best describes object storage?

  • Uses stored mode and cached mode to creates backups of all locally stored content for recovery purposes.
  • Saves all data in a single file and is organized by a hierarchical path of folders and subfolders.
  • Divides data into self-contained units stored at the same level with no sub-directories.
  • Splits data into fixed blocks and stores them with unique identifiers.;

Week 4 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Final Exam

Q1. How would you define logical topology?

  • It is a single network path that devices can plug in to.
  • It is the way data flows around the devices on a network.
  • It is the way network devices are physically connected.
  • It is a ring-shaped series of wires used to connect different hardware devices to each other.

Q2. What happens when a server fails in a tree topology?

  • Cables fail
  • Nothing happens
  • The whole network fails
  • Connected devices fail

Q3. Why is cable used more than fiber optic?

  • It has the fastest speed.
  • It’s available in most places.
  • It has less network congestion.
  • It isn’t susceptible to interference.

Q4. What kind of wireless network uses LTE?

  • WLAN
  • WWAN
  • WPAN
  • WMAN

Q5. What kind of wireless network uses IrDA?

  • WMAN
  • WLAN
  • WPAN
  • WWAN

Q6. How are data packets sent across a network?

  • In a random order.
  • With the largest data packets being sent first.
  • In a reverse order.
  • In a sequential order.

Q7. Which one of the below IP addresses is invalid?

  • 185.93.10.255
  • 132.55.34.144
  • 10.4.10.156
  • 63.111.77.263;

Q8. What’s the difference between the OSI Model and the TCP/IP Model?

  • There is no difference between the TCP/IP model and the OSI model.
  • The TCP/IP model is a set of standards to define how computers should communicate on a network and the OSI model is a conceptual framework for networking.
  • The TCP/IP model is a conceptual framework for networking, and the OSI model is a set of standards that define how computers should communicate on a network.
  • The TCP/IP model defines the standards of the world wide web, whereas the OSI model is a set of standards that define IEEE and IEEE 802 communications.

Q9. Which of the following would the UDP protocol be used for? (Select two)

  • Web browsing
  • Online gaming
  • Email
  • Live streaming

Q10. Which of the following does a proxy server do?

  • Proxy servers monitor the network for any malicious activity.;
  • Proxy servers connect multiple devices to the network via ethernet cable.
  • Proxy servers monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
  • Proxy servers hide the IP addresses of requesting clients.

Q11. What is a node?

  • A device that can send, receive, and create information on a network.
  • A device that can create firewalls and block external signals.
  • A server that provides storage to devices on a network.
  • The error message a user receives when the network is down.

Q12. Which of the following cable types can work over the longest distance?

  • Fiber optic
  • Ethernet
  • Coaxial
  • Serial

Q13. How do you access router settings?

  • Through a web browser.;
  • Via the Device Manager in Windows.
  • On the back of the router.
  • Via the Networks option in the Control Panel.

Q14. What IEEE standards do cellular networks use?

  • IEEE 802.20 and IEEE 802.22
  • IEEE 802.11
  • IEEE 802.16
  • IEEE 802.15

Q15. What is the most common broadband type?

  • Static IP
  • PPoE
  • DHCP
  • RAID

Q16. Which protocol lets you view email from multiple devices without data loss?

  • NFC;
  • POP3
  • TCP
  • IMAP4

Q17. What is the difference between ephemeral storage and persistent storage?

  • Ephemeral storage downloads saved data from the cloud, whereas persistent storage uploads saved data to the cloud.
  • Ephemeral storage deletes saved data on restart, whereas persistent storage keeps saved data on restart.
  • Ephemeral storage uploads saved data to the cloud, whereas persistent storge downloads saved data from the cloud.
  • Ephemeral storage keeps saved data on restart, whereas persistent storage deletes saved data on restart.

Q18. Where is workgroup data stored?

  • Network server
  • Individual user devices
  • Direct Attached Storage unit
  • Solid-state drive

Q19. What is network-attached storage?

  • A RAID configuration popular with photographers.
  • A flash drive attached to a local device.
  • A data recovery service.
  • A local file server that acts as a hard drive for all devices on a network.

Q20. Which one of the following is a characteristic of object storage?

  • It is the default storage for frequently updated data.
  • It is often used in databases and email servers.
  • It uses metadata for fast searching.
  • It provides user-level customization.

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