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Introduction to TCP/IP Coursera Answer All Weeks

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In this post we will be discussing Coursera – Introduction to TCP/IP  all weeks Quizzes and  Answers.

 

Practice Quiz for Module 1 

 
Question 1)
Among the following statements on Internet configuration and functions on a computer, which is correct?    
  • Subnet masks are used in identifying the subnet size and used in IP packet routing by the gateway/router
  • DNS (Domain Name Server) converts user login IDs in to IP addresses
  • IPv4 and IPv6 addresses commonly used in the Internet are classful addresses
  • Default gateway is a gateway sold with only the minimum basic routing functions (which are the ‘default functions’), and are therefore sold for cheaper prices
 
Question 2)
Among the following statements on DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) configuration and functions, which is correct?    
  • A computer using DHCP does not need to search for a DHCP server because the default gateway will automatically connect the computer to the DHCP server
  • The DHCP server manages the local network’s computer information, default gateway, domain name, name server, and time server information
  • DHCP is a protocol for ‘dynamically’ moving mobile devices (hosts) only, and is not used for fixed positions computers
  • The use of DHCP aggravates the shortage problem of IPv4 addresses, and therefore its usage needs to be limited
 

My PC’s Internet & Gateway Quizzes and Answers

 
Question 1)
Among the following statements on Subnets and Subnet Masks, which is incorrect?
  • The Internet is divided into subnets, which are divided into smaller subnets
  • The subnet size can be found from the Subnet Mask
  • Subnet Masks are used in routing to determine which interface a packet needs to be sent to reach its destination
  • IPv4 Subnet Masks are 128 bits 
Question 2)
Among the following statements on DNS (Domain Name Server), which is incorrect?
  • DNS converts IP addresses in to hostnames
  • Preferred DNS server is the main DNS server used on a computer
  • Alternate DNS server is the backup DNS server (to the Preferred DNS server) used on a computer
  • www.google.com and www.facebook.com are hostnames
Question 3)
Among the following statements on DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), which is incorrect?    
  • For DHCP to work, a local DHCP server must exist
  • DHCP is the dedicated Internet router that will send and receive all Internet IP packets for a computer
  • DHCP is used for IPv4 and IPv6 connections
  • The DHCP Server assigns an IP address, subnet mask, IP address of the DNS server, and more
Question 4)
Among the following statements on the effectiveness of DHCP, which is incorrect?
  • DHCP enables a small number of IP addresses to support many computers
  • Only a computer that needs an Internet connection is assigned an IP address, and after the Internet connection ends, the IP address is returned to the DHCP server
  • DHCP helps to solve the serious shortage problem of IPv6 addresses 
  • DHCP is automatic, thus it is used on most smartphones and smart devices
Question 5)
For IP Gateway and subnet configurations, which of the following is incorrect?
  • Among the IP addresses of a subnet, commonly the Network Destination is assigned the lowest IP address
  • Among the IP addresses of a subnet, commonly the Broadcast IP address is the highest IP address
  • Classful addresses are commonly used to represent the network destination IP address and subnet mask
  • Among the IP addresses of a subnet, commonly the Gateway interface is assigned the second highest IP address
Question 6)
In DHCP operations, which of the following is commonly not managed by the DHCP server?
  • Name of the user of the computer
  • Information of the computer (client device)
  • Default Gateway
  • Domain Name
  • Name Server
  • Time Server
Question 7
Among the following statements on DHCP setup messages and operations, which is incorrect?
  • A client computer will broadcast a ‘Server Discovery’ message when searching for a DHCP Server
  • Any DHCP Server on a local network can reply to a ‘Server Discovery’ message with an ‘IP Lease Offer’ message sent back to the client computer
  • A client computer will send an ‘IP Lease Request’ message back to the DHCP Server that sent it an ‘IP Lease Offer’ message
  • A DHCP Server will send back an ‘IP Lease Acknowledgement’ message to the client computer that sent it an ’IP Lease Request’ message
  • DHCP uses TCP to connect to the DHCP Server

Practice Quiz for Module 2

 
Question 1)
Among the following statements on IPv4 and IPv6 packets, which is correct?
  • Several functional fields of the IPv4 packet were removed when making the IPv6 packets, resulting in a simpler IPv6 header structure, and therefore, IPv4 packets are datagrams but IPv6 packets are not datagrams
  • In order to assist a computer sending an IP packet in to the Internet, the default gateway is the only gateway/router that checks errors of the IP Header Checksum such that the IP packet properly arrives at the destination system
  • The ‘Total Length’ field in an IPv4 packet represents the length of the entire IPv4 packet (in units of octets), where the maximum possible IPv4 packet length is 65,535 octets
  • In a Wi-Fi (IEEE 802.11 WLAN standard) network and Ethernet (IEEE 802.3 LAN standard) network, the IPv4 packet size can be set to the maximum IPv4 packet size 65,535 octets
 
 
Question 2)
IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, and therefore use Hexadecimal (0x) numbering for efficient address representation. Among the following Binary = Hexadecimal = Decimal mapping, which is incorrect?
  • 1000 = 0x8 = 8
  • 1001 = 0x9 = 9
  • 1010 = 0xa = 10
  • 1011 = 0xb = 11
  • 1100 = 0xc = 12 
  • 1101 = 0xd = 13
  • 1110 = 0xe = 14 
  • 1111 = 0xf = 15
  • 0000 = 0xg = 16
 
 
Question 3)
Among the following statements on IPv4 and IPv6 addresses, which is correct?
  • CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation was used in the early Internet, but due to its too large IP subnet sizes that resulted in IP address wastes, a new classful address structured is used in the Internet such that the right size subnet sizes can be assigned based on network class
  • The IPv4 Jumbo Payload Option extension header can be used to make IPv4 Jumbogram packets with sizes much larger than 65,535 octets
  • Classful address subnets use VLSM (Variable-Length Subnet Masking) in assigning IPv4 and IPv6 address blocks to organizations based on actual number of IP addresses needed
  • The 16 bit Header Checksum field of IPv4 packets protects the IPv4 source and destination addresses fields and other header fields from errors, but does not check for errors that may have occurred in the payload part of the IPv4 packet
 
 
Question 4)
Among the following statements on TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol), which is correct?
  • The TTL (Time to Live) field used in the UDP and TCP header prevent time delayed data segments from showing up late at the destination computer/server and messing up the data segment sequence reordering process
  • TCP and UDP both provide port information of the source and destination computers/servers for application connection
  • TCP is a connectionless protocol, but UDP is a connection oriented protocol that maintains end-to-end flow control of data segments 
  • UDP, which is a ‘User Datagram Protocol’ uses the PSH Flag, URG (Urgent) Flag, and UP (Urgent Pointer) in order to inform the ‘User’ of the computer/server that a security attack has been detected and urgent care is needed
 
 

TCP/IP Protocol Quizzes and Answers

Question 1)
Among the following statements on datagrams, which is incorrect?
  • A datagram has sufficient information to be routed from a source computer to a destination computer without reliance on earlier exchanges between the source and destination computers and the transporting network
  • IPv6 packets are not datagrams
  • IPv4 packets are datagrams 
  • Datagrams are self-contained independent entities that can carry data    
 
 
Question 2)
Among the following statements on IPv4 packet length, which is incorrect?
  • The maximum possible IPv4 packet length is 65,535 octets
  • The ‘Total Length’ field in an IPv4 packet represents the length of the entire IPv4 packet (in units of octets)
  • In an Ethernet network, the IPv4 packet size can be set to the maximum IPv4 packet size 65,535 octets    
  • In a Wi-Fi (IEEE 802.11 WLAN standard) network, 2,304 octets is the largest IPv4 packet size
 
 
Question 3)
Among the following statements on the Header Checksum of IPv4 packets, which is incorrect?
  • The Header Checksum does not check for errors that may have occurred in the payload data part of the IPv4 packet
  • The Header Checksum uses an error detection code to protect the IPv4 packet header from errors
  • The Header Checksum field is 16 bits
  • The Header Checksum is used to check errors only at the destination system
 
 
Question 4)
Among the following statements on the Source & Destination Addresses of IPv4 packets, which is incorrect?
  • CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation is commonly used
  • CIDR addressing makes the Internet more scalable, because networks can be assigned proper subnet sizes
  • Classful Addresses (like Class A, B, C) subnet sizes were too small, frequently resulting in lack of IP addresses to use    
  • Source and Destination IPv4
  • addresses are each 32 bits
 
 
Question 5)
Among the following statements on the CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation and addressing, which is incorrect? 
  • CIDR uses VLSM (Variable-Length Subnet Masking)
  • CIDR enables IPv4 & IPv6 address block allocation to organizations based on actual network size (number of PCs, Servers) and short-term predicted needs
  • 123.234.100.56/24 represents the IPv4 address 123.234.100.56 and a subnet mask with 24 ones (followed by 8 zeros)
  • CIDR can be used for IPv4 networks only
 
 
Question 6)
IPv6 protocols use Hexadecimal (Ox) numbering. Among the following Binary = Hexadecimal = Decimal mapping, which is incorrect?
  • 0000 = 0x0 = 0
  • 0001 = 0x1 = 1
  • 1000 = 0x8 = 8
  • 1001 = 0x9 = 9 
  • 1010 = 0xa = 10
  • 1011 = 0xb = 11
  • 1101 = 0xe = 14
  • 1111 = 0xf = 15
 
 
Question 7)
Among the following descriptions on IPv6 Jumbograms, which is incorrect?
  • An IPv6 Jumbogram will have its Payload Length field 16 bits all set to 0
  • The Jumbo Payload Option extension header needs to be used in IPv6 Jumbograms     
  • An IPv4 Jumbogram can be much larger than 65,535 octets  
  • If IPv6 Jumbograms can be used, IPv6 Jumbograms will provide an enhanced data transfer performance    
 
 
Question 8)
Among the following statements on UDP (User Datagram Protocol), which is incorrect?
  • UDP provides port information of the source and destination computers for application connection
  • UDP header includes a checksum field that can be used for checking errors in the UDP header and data
  • UDP is a connectionless protocol, which does not establish an end-to-end connection manager to check on the received packets
  • UDP header includes a hop count field to check the number of hops from the source port to the destination port
 
 
Question 9)
Among the following statements, which is not used in the TCP Checksum Computation?
  • TCP Pseudo Header
  • UDP header
  • TCP Data
  • Ones complement sum of all 16 bit words in the TCP header
 
 
Question 10)
TCP has functions to expedite networking services. Among the following, which is not a TCP header function for this purpose? 
  • TCP uses the UP (Urgent Pointer) to point to the urgent data location, which enables the Receiver to know how much urgent data is coming
  • TCP uses the URG (Urgent) Flag to indicate that the Urgent Pointer field is in use
  • TCP uses the PSH Flag, which is a push function to push the data segment to the receiving application, which enables the received data segments to be quickly used by the application 
  • TCP uses the TTL (Time to Live) field in the TCP header to specify the time duration the TCP session has to be completed
 

Practice Quiz for Module 3

 
Question 1)
Among the following descriptions on IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol) and EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol), which is incorrect?
  • The most widely used IGP in the Internet is OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)
  • The EGP used in the Internet is BGP4 (Border Gateway Protocol version 4)
  • IGP categories include OS (Open-State) and CV (Closed-Vector) routing protocols
  • IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is an IGP
  • eBGP (external BGP) is BGP routing used between ASs (Autonomous Systems)
  • iBGP (internal BGP) is BGP routing used within an AS
  • BGP4 routing path selection is based on network policies and administrator configured rule-sets
 
 
Question 2)
Among the following statements on OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and BGP (Border Gateway Protocol), which is incorrect?
  • BGP security is easy to maintain because each ISP (Internet Service Provider) takes good care of their security system
  • BGP routers need to exchange (setup and update) information with each other to be able to adapt to changes in routing and security conditions 
  • OSPF protocol results in a loop-free SPT (Shortest Path Tree) to be used for routing packets
  • OSPF can use RTT (Round-Trip Time), reliability, availability, distance of a router, number of hops to reach the destination, or the throughput as a link cost factor
 
 
Question 3)
Among the following descriptions on ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) and NAT (Network Address Translation), which is incorrect?  
  • In a Wi-Fi mobile device, ARP can be used to map the mobile device’s IPv4 address to its Wi-Fi MAC (Medium Access Control) address  
  • ARP parameter values are managed by the IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)
  • IPv6 networks use NAT (Network Address Translation) for ARP functionality
  • One-to-Many NAT (also known as IP Masquerading) is one of the solutions for the IPv4 address space exhaustion problem, because it helps to save IPv4 address space due to higher efficiency in IP address usage, and provides enhanced security    
 
 
Question 4)
Among the following descriptions on RPC (Remote Procedure Call) and FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is incorrect?
  • RPC is used to enable a function or procedure to be executed on a remote computer, and therefore, RPC can enable access to a remote computer as if it is a local computer
  • FTP with TLS (Transport Layer Security) protection (FTPS) is commonly used to transfer files from a server to a client computer with protection
  • FTP active mode is used when the client is behind a firewall and cannot accept incoming TCP connections from the server
  • FTP Stream mode uses TCP to send data in a continuous stream  
  • FTP Block mode divides data into blocks and uses TCP to transfer the data blocks 
  • FTP Compressed mode applies data compression when transferring data
 

Internet Routing & Functions

Question 1)
Among the following descriptions on IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol) and EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol), which is incorrect?
  • IGP categories include LS (Link-State) and DV (Distance-Vector) routing protocols
  • IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is the BGP routing used between ASs
  • iBGP (internal BGP) is the BGP routing used within an AS
  • BGP4 routing path selection is based on network policies and administrator configured rule-sets
Question 2)
Among the following statements on BGP Security, which is incorrect?
  • BGP routers do not exchange information with each other to make the network heterogeneous in order to enhance the security level
  • BGP security is a challenging issue because BGP Routers commonly belong to different ISPs (Internet Service Providers)
  • BGP security is used in authentication and protection against spoofed BGP messages and malware
  • Routers of different ISPs may use different encryption and security schemes
Question 3)
Among the following descriptions on OSPF (Open Shortest Path First), which is incorrect? 
  • The SPT setup from the OSPF protocol is a collection of minimum cost routing paths (using Dijkstra’s algorithm) from a Source to each Destination node in the network
  • OSPF uses the DV (Distance-Vector) routing protocol
  • OSPF protocol results in a loop-free SPT (Shortest Path Tree) to be used for routing packets
  • In the Internet, OSPF is most commonly used for routing of IPv4, IPv6, and CIDR addressed packets
Question 4)
Among the following metrics, which is not an OSPF link cost factor?
  • Number of hops to reach the destination
  • Cost of the router
  • Availability
  • Reliability
  • Distance of a router
  • RTT (Round-Trip Time)
  • Throughput
Question 5)
Among the following router types, which is incorrect? 
  • IR (Internal Router) is used when all routing interfaces belong to the same network area
  • ABR (Area Border Router) is used to connect one or more subarea networks to the backbone network
  • BR (Backbone Router) is used to connect to the backbone network
  • ASBR (Autonomous System Boundary Router) is used to make connection from a host inside an AS to its Boundary Router at the edge of the AS 
Question 6)
Among the following descriptions on ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), which is incorrect?
  • ARP parameter values are managed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force)
  • IPv6 networks use NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) for ARP functionality
  • ARP can be used to map a computer’s IPv4 address to its Ethernet MAC (Medium Access Control) address
  • ARP maps an IPv4/IPv6 address to a device’s DLL (Data Link Layer) address
Question 7)
Among the following descriptions on NAT (Network Address Translation), which is incorrect?
  • One-to-Many NAT uses many IP addresses such that it has become one of the reason why IPv4 address space exhaustion has occurred
  • One-to-Many NAT is also called IP Masquerading
  • One-to-One NAT is used in interconnection of two incompatibly addressed assigned IP networks
  • One-to-Many NAT provides enhanced security
Question 8)
Among the following descriptions on RPC (Remote Procedure Call), which is incorrect?
  • RPC needs recovery procedures to help overcome from unpredictable network problems
  • RPC is used for long distance phone calls
  • RPC can enable programming on a remote computer as if it is a local computer
  • RPC request and response procedures used ‘Request’ and ‘Response’ messages between the client and server computer
Question 9
Among the following descriptions on FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is incorrect?   
  • FTP passive mode is used when the client is behind a firewall and cannot accept incoming TCP connections from the server
  • FTP stream mode divides data into blocks and then uses compression to transfer data efficiently
  • FTP with TLS (Transport Layer Security) protection (FTPS) is commonly used
  • FTP is used to transfer files from a server to a client computer
Question 10)
Among the following descriptions on e-mail, which is incorrect?
  • IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) enables a user e-mail account to be managed from multiple e-mail devices
  • POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) can be used to move e-mails from the server onto your computer
  • SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to send and receive e-mails between servers
  • Compared to IMAP, POP3 is more popular due to its simple operation

Practice Quiz for Module 4

 
Question 1)
Among the most frequent Internet attacks, which of the following in not true.
  • DoS (Denial of Service) attacks can be defended by anti-virus software and firewall updating
  • DNS (Domain Name System) attacks result in changed domain names in order to hijack a communication session, which can be prevented by using random source port selections and updating server security patches    
  • Brute force attacks occur when an attacker (repeatedly) tries to decode a password or pin number to gain illegal access of a website or account, and can be defended by frequent and well-selected password and pin number changes
  • Browser attacks rarely occur but can be defended by multiple website servers to support the different browser types
  • Scan attacks occur when computer ports are used to breach the security system of network gateways and servers
  • Backdoor attacks can be defended by updating security patches and application updates, which are all software updates
 
 
Question 2)
Among the following descriptions on Phishing types, which is incorrect?
  • Whaling is a phishing attack made directly to the main database of the company 
  • Link Manipulation is a phishing attack using a disguised website link that is an infected system with malware, or a disguised website link that covertly connects to a hacker website
  • Clone Phishing is a phishing attack, where a legitimate previously delivered email is resent to the receiver containing an attachment file or a website link that is infected with malware, in order to fool the receiver as if it is an updated or replied email
  • Social Engineering is a phishing attack, where a user is provoked to click on a malicious link or hacker website
  • Filter Evasion is a phishing attack that uses images (instead of text) to avoid anti-phishing filters used in security systems
 
 
Question 3)
Among the following descriptions on security technologies, which is incorrect?
  • IDS (Intrusion Detection System) types include HIDS (Host IDS), Signature-based IDS, NIDS (Network IDS), and Anomaly-based IDS
  • TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a symmetric cryptography technology that provides privacy and data integrity between networked applications by using uniquely generated encryption keys for each connection
  • 3G firewalls use DPI (Deep Packet Inspection) and WAF (Web Application Firewall) functions and include IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) technology
  • Stateful filtering of IP packets and transport layer (TCP, UDP) protocols were conducted by 1G firewalls, for protection of IP, TCP, and UDP functions
 
 
Question 4)
Among the following descriptions of how to prevent an attack, which is incorrect?
  • Buffer overflow can be defended by including a randomized layout of memory and monitoring actions that write into adjacent memory spaces
  • MITM (Man-in-the-Middle) attacks are due to espionage activity, and therefore, the human spy needs to be found and removed
  • DoS (Denial of Service) attacks can be defended by anti-virus software and firewall updating
  • DNS spoofing and hijacking can be defended by using a random source port and updating server security patches    
 
 
Question 5)
Which of the following statements on Internet security and protection is incorrect?
  • In 2003, the Wi-Fi Alliance announced that due to the security vulnerabilities of WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy), WEP was to be replaced with WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
  • WPA was replaced with the more secure WPA2, where currently WPA2 certification is a mandatory requirement for all Wi-Fi devices, including all new APs (Access Points)
  • In order to overcome DoS (Denial of Service) cyber attacks, DDoS (Distributed DoS) was created as a security mechanism against DoS attacks by diluting the attacks (making it easier to defend) through intentionally distributing the attack resources
  • SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) was replaced with TLS (Transport Layer Security) due to improved protection
  • SSH (Secure Shell) cryptography can provide secure services over unsecured networks
 

Internet Security Quizzes and Answers

Question 1)
Among the most frequent Internet attacks, which of the following is not true.    
  • DNS attacks result in changed domain names in order to hijack a communication session
  • Brute force attacks result in stolen smartphones, laptops, etc.
  • Browser attacks are the most frequent Internet attack type 
  • Browser attacks can be defended by updating the OS and application
  • Scan attacks result in computer ports being used in security breaches to the network computing systems    
 
 
Question 2
Among the following descriptions of 3G (3rd Generation) Firewalls, which is incorrect?
  • HTTP and DNS operations are filtered in 3G firewalls
  • 3G firewalls include IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) technology
  • 3G firewalls use DPI (Deep Packet Inspection) and WAF (Web Application Firewall) technology
  • User Identities and computer MAC addresses are monitored in 3G firewalls
  • 3G firewalls track state changes in IPv4 and IPv6, but does not track TCP or UDP changes
 
 
Question 3)
Among the following descriptions of how to prevent an attack, which is incorrect?
  • Backdoor attacks can be defended by frequent replacing of Internet switches and routers
  • Brute force attacks can be defended by frequent and well-selected password changes
  • DoS (Denial of Service) attacks can be defended by anti-virus software and firewall updating
  • DNS spoofing and hijacking can be defended by using a random source port and updating server security patches
  • DNS attacks can be defended by using a random source port and updating server security patches  
 
 
 
Question 4)
Among the following, which is not a type of IDS (Intrusion Detection System)?
  • Anomaly-based IDS
  • HIDS (Host IDS)
  • Location-based IDS
  • Signature-based IDS
  • NIDS (Network IDS)
 
 
Question 5)
Among the following listed, which is not a Phishing type?       
  • Clone Phishing
  • Social Engineering
  • Whaling
  • Link Manipulation
  • Filter Evasion
  • Fishing Phishing
 
 
Question 6)
Among the following descriptions of Buffer Overflow, which is incorrect?
  • Buffer overflow is used in DoS (Denial of Service) and DDoS (Distributed DoS) attacks 
  • Buffer overflow can occur when malware overruns the buffer’s boundary and overwrites into adjacent memory locations
  • Buffer overflow defense schemes include randomizing the layout of memory and monitoring actions that write into adjacent memory spaces
  • Stack overflow is a type of buffer overflow that the attacker manipulates a local variable, the return address, or a function pointer to create a malfunction on the stack’s buffer 
  • USB overflow is a type of buffer overflow that the attacker fills up one’s portable USB such that no more files can be saved on the USB memory device
 
 
Question 7)
Among the following Internet security and threat issues, which is not true?
  • Zero-day attacks commonly result in disabled web services
  • A zombie computer is a hacker compromised computer that is connected to the Internet  
  • Companies that receive a cyber attack are seldom attacked again
  • Users of zombie computers are commonly unaware
  • New zero-day vulnerabilities are discovered almost every day
 
 
Question 8)
Among the following Internet security and protection schemes, which is not true?
  • Botnets are used to conduct various Internet attacks, which include DDoS, spam, and intrusions
  • Backdoors are used by developers or administrators to fix the system, but if a hacker gets access to a backdoor, then the amount of damage to the system or network can be significant
  • DNS spoofing is commonly used in DNS hijacking attacks
  • Botnets are used as a countermeasure to defend against zombie computers
  • MITM (Man-in-the-Middle) attackers secretly relay packets in conducting eavesdropping and manipulation of information
 
 
Question 9)
Which of the following statements on Internet security and protection is incorrect?
  • TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a symmetric cryptography technology that is used with encryption keys generated uniquely for each connection in order to provide privacy and data integrity between networked applications
  • WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)includes all mandatory elements of the IEEE 802.11i standard and requires Wi-Fi Alliance testing and certification
  • SSH (Secure Shell) cryptography enable secure services over unsecured networks
  • WPA2 certified Wi-Fi devices are rare to find in new Wi-Fi AP (Access Point) products
  • TLS replaces SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) technology as it is provides a higher level of protection 
 
 
Question 10)
Which of the following statements on Internet security and protection is incorrect?
  • Attackers use SQL code injection to attack SQL databases and data-driven applications
  • Due to the vulnerabilities of WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access), it was replaced with the new WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) protocol
  • DoS (Denial of Service) is a cyber attack that disables a device or network by making operational resources unavailable
  • One of the best knowns defense mechanisms against MITM (Man-in-the-Middle) attacks is to enhance the authentication process using a CA (Certificate Authority)
  • DDoS (Distributed DoS) attacks commonly occur using multiple distributed botnets and zombie computers
 

Wireshark Internet Project Quizzes and Answers

Question 1)
Did you succeed in installing Wireshark?
  • Yes
  • No
 
Question 2)
Were you able to identify the TCP and/or TLSv1.2 handshake using Wireshark?
  • Yes
  • No
 
Question 3)
Were you able to identify the TCP Window size using Wireshark?
  • Yes
  • No
 
Question 4)
Were you able to successfully download the file from the Google drive or Baidu drive and capture packets using Wireshark?
  • Yes
  • No
 
Question 5)
Were you able to identify the average data rate and the total elapsed time used in downloading the file from the Google drive or Baidu drive?
  • Yes
  • No

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